There have been many discussions regarding the proposed property tax and in a number of them I have asked what I believe to be a pertinent question, that has never been answered by those advocating the tax.
We now also have the "big stick" of Revenue being waved at people but again, my question has not been adequately answered.. so maybe a dedicated thread might tease the answer out of people.
It is as simple as this...
A property tax is to be levied on all property owners, with Revenue making a valuation, and then levying the valuation on the property owner, where should the owner refuse to pay the tax, will give Revenue the right to have the tax paid through a levy on the property owners income.
However, in many many cases in this country, properties are "jointly owned" (by married couples), and there is only one income coming into the household (either husband or wife)...
Now, what if one of the joint owners, for example a husband, refuses to pay what he considers, his fellow joint owners portion of the tax ?
And what then of that joint owner does not have an income of their own with which to pay the tax with ?
Does a husband for example, have a legal obligation to pay for what is in effect a wife's bill ?
And the Irish Constitution protects a housewife from being forced from the home for economic reasons ...
So, if one joint owner doesn't have an income.. how will the tax be levied on them ?