Strikes are getting massive publicity in the UK at the moment due to several strikes by various unions who are taking advantage of the Olympics to put extra pressure on unions.
In this article, the Immigration Minister, Damian Green, complains that due to a low turnout, only 1 in 10 PCS union members actually voted for a strike....
BBC News - Home Office staff vote to strike over jobs and pay
Whilst I can see his point, aren't politicans getting into a dangerous area here?
For one thing, I have never seen politics complain when a majority of people who voted against a strike. It seems only when the vote goes against what they want do they complain - otherwise they are quite content to accept the vote.
More importantly, low turnout in many UK elections means that many MPs were elected with considerably less than 50% of people eligible to vote, let alone 50% of people who did vote.
To take the most extreme example, in the 2010 general election, in Manchester Central only 44% of eligible voters actually did vote.
The candidate who won, Tony Lloyd for Labour, got 53% of the votes cast - but that means that less than a quarter of the people who were entitled to vote actually voted for him, and more than three-quarters did not vote for him.
More people did not vote than did vote - therefore is the result valid?
Should there be laws relating to strike ballots, and if so, what should they specify? Will a 50% + 1 turnout be sufficient to validate the result? Or would they have to go even further and say that more than 50% of the people eligible to vote must vote in favour of a strike?




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