There is much controversy surrounding the fact that a similar Treaty to Lisbon was rejected by referendum in France and the Netherlands a few years ago, and that these people aren't being given a vote this time around. Why is this though? In what way does this Treaty differ from the last in such a way as to render referenda unnecessary in these countries? Presumably if referenda are not being held in these countries, then referenda are not deemed necessary by the countries' respective constitutions, which were democratically ratified? And I know in France a referendum could have been forced on a petition by at least 40% of parliament but there was insufficient opposition to the Treaty in France's democratically elected government, is this the case in other countries?



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