
Originally Posted by
Sailor
I would be interested to hear some views on this issue, which I will attempt to summarise here:
3. It is unlikely that it will be possible to arrive at a price for the impaired assets which will be absolutely "fair" to both the taxpayer and the banks. Probably anywhere within a few billion of being correct is as much as can be hoped for.
4. If the pricing were to err seriously in favour of the taxpayer, the entire exercise would be futile in that the banks would go under.
5. Does this suggest that the soundest policy - no matter how much we might dislike it - would be to pragmatically decide to err in the banks´favour, thus improving the likelihood of their surviving and playing their required role in getting credit flowing to the wider economy?
6. As an corollary to 5. above, is it, to some extent at least, not the case that the determination of asset transfer prices must primarily be dictated by what the banks can bear and still survive? In other words, there will be no pricing exercise per se - rather prices will be be the output of a calculation of how much of a discount the banks can afford and still survive as functioning entities?
I have no expertise in this area - which may be more obvious than I realise !!!