An interesting letter has appeared in today's Irish Times:
The Irish Times - Readers Letters and Feedback
The letter writer continues:
Nowhere in the Constitution does it specify that marriage is comprised of a union between and man and a woman. Nowhere does it make reference to a “father” and or “mother” which might imply marriage to be between a man and a woman (even though that naming convention would more accurately be used to describe the parentage of a child as opposed to who their parents are married to).
Can someone in Government, or someone with a legal background, explain why a constitutional referendum is required? Perhaps there is precedent that states or implies such an arrangement, but it would be good to know.
So could it be that gay marriage is in fact already legal and no referendum is actually required?Article 40. 1 of the Constitution, which expressly states: “All citizens shall, as human persons, be held equal before the law.”




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