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This is a discussion on The Action Axiom, true a priori? within the Economy forums, part of the Issues category on Politics.ie. This is a spinoff from: http://www.politics.ie/economy/54711...ics-rte-3.html Most of that topic from page 3 onwards is about this subject but that ...
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| This is a spinoff from: Austrian economics on RTE! Most of that topic from page 3 onwards is about this subject but that thread was getting cluttered with different interesting subjects. One of which is closely related: http://www.politics.ie/chat/58550-th...ri-truths.html The Action Axiom is "Humans act". This explains(from wiki) a priori: Quote:
Now that all that is out of the way, I'll explain my argument:
Another point that we discussed on the thread is the importance (for austrian economics) that the definition of Human and Act are independent. For example you can't define human as "an acting animal" or you can't define acting as "purposeful human action". If you do that yes "Humans act" is true a priori but it is also useless. It would make it like saying "All bachelors are unmarried".
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What I propose: Human: A member of the genus Homo and especially of the species H. sapiens. Action: employment of means to achieve ends over time No surprise that opponents try to characterise these statements as meaningless, empty tautologies.
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I have no way of knowing a priori that other humans even exist. |
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The answer to the quibble may be that you're assuming that your school already has an answer to any objection... ...And, it just so happens that, in this case, it does have an answer and that is by Rothbard who says that it is not true a priori: Murray Rothbard's Randian Austrianism Quote:
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Glad we have agreement, those definitions will be fine, we must now stick with them for the rest of the thread. Don't recall anyone characterising independent meanings as tautologies only statements that are true because of two non-independent statements.
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| And as I said if you're the only human then "humans act" is not usable for what you want to use it for. But lets not get into that again.
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- what Seos emphasises, that I know that humans act only from my own experience; if I never went to school and learned maths I wouldn't learn that 20 + 50 = 70, or if I would make such experience I wouldn't have the means to express it; - that on the other hand "humans act" is part of not just what we observe of other humans' behaviour, but which is presupposed and basis of society rules which we also learn by growing up in it; from criticism of our actiins from child on, praise, rewards, laughter, smile at us or sour faces, up to laws, moral and ethics which we observe and which we by this learn are based on "humans act". In the latter systems "humans act" seems to be a priori"? In our individual observance of other individuals it probably isn't? So: a mix of both, maybe? |
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__________________ I have opinions of my own - strong opinions - but I don't always agree with them. - George Bush |
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So I'm not saying anything definite about other humans. If that does not resolve your problem maybe this will: We're using the definition "employment of means to achieve ends over time" for act. So what I am saying is that it is possible that humans only appear to "employ means to achieve ends over time". So it is possible that humans don't act by this definition. This is also true for any other useful definition because any useful definition will want to say that humans act in a more substantive form than for example pens act.
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| Seos: I think you are thinking this too much. Do you think that all actions are business-economic transactions? Austrianists seem to. Austrianists are thus wrong. Now, you're free to join every other trained economists who realise that talking about Austrianism is a waste of time as it doesn't have anything to say about pounds-and-pence decisions, as opposed to decisions like what to call your child. Indeed it refuses to even acknowledge that these two actions are fundamentally different to people.
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